start | find | index | login or register | edit
by earl, 5214 days ago
I've long maintained that JavaScript is a rather peculiar language when it comes down to core language semantics. Inspired by a few hours of discussion and exploration with Chris Langreiter, here's a little example:

function foo() {                     function bar() {
var f = function() 42; function f() 4711;
function f() 4711; var f = function() 42;
return f; return f;
} }

What do you think, does foo()() === bar()() hold? Would you expect it to? Would you want it to (say, if you were the one defining the semantics)?
powered by vanilla
echo earlZstrainYat|tr ZY @. • esa3 • online for 8539 days • c'est un vanilla site