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by earl, 3937 days ago
I've long maintained that JavaScript is a rather peculiar language when it comes down to core language semantics. Inspired by a few hours of discussion and exploration with Chris Langreiter, here's a little example:

function foo() {                     function bar() {
var f = function() 42; function f() 4711;
function f() 4711; var f = function() 42;
return f; return f;
} }

What do you think, does foo()() === bar()() hold? Would you expect it to? Would you want it to (say, if you were the one defining the semantics)?
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